CHAPTERS 12 & 13 EXERCISE AND THE PHYSICAL FITNESS TEST

What percentage of adult Americans do any kind of regular exercise?
1. About 55%
2. About 33%
3. About 70 %
4. About 25 %
What is meant by the term mental fitness?
1. An individual has a healthy outlook on life.
2. An individual has a basic understanding of life and happiness.
3. An individual is always happy.
4. An individual has a grasp of the realities of life.
What is meant by the term emotional fitness?
1. It is the ability to be stable, self controlled, and the ability to face reality with honesty.
2. The ability to handle stress.
3. The ability to thrive in a stressful environment.
4. The ability to control our emotions.
What is meant by the term physical fitness?
1. The ability of your whole body to work efficiently.
2. A person with a body fat percentage below 22 percent.
3. A person that can combine exercise and healthy eating habits.
4. A person that is capable of passing the physical fitness test with a minimum passing score.
In relation to this category, what does the term speed mean?
1. The ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
2. The way a body reacts to physical exertion.
3. The reaction of a body to physical exertion.
4. Running fast.
What is meant by the term coordination?
1. The ability to use your senses, such as your eyes, together with other body parts.
2. The ability to do many things at once.
3. The ability to combine mental strengths to accomplish a required task.
4. The ability to anticipate the reaction of any given event.
What term is used to describe how hard you have to work for nay exercise to be effective?
1. Intensity
2. Aerobic
3. Warm-up
4. Max-out
Which of the following terms means, in this context, "with oxygen"?
1. Aerobic
2. Hypoxia
3. Maxed-out
4. Oxygen deprivation
5. Anaerobic
Which of the following is a brief period of light exercise to prepare you for more vigorous exercise?
1. Warm-up
2. Warm-down
3. Anaerobic
4. Aerobic
Which part of the exercise regime gives your circulatory system and your breathing a chance to return to almost normal?
1. The cool-down phase.
2. The warm-up phase.
3. The anabolic phase.
4. The aerobic phase.
What is the minimum qualification score that a cadet must achieve before they can earn the physical fitness ribbon?
1. Satisfactory in all categories.
2. Satisfactory in 3 of the categories.
3. An overall score of good.
4. An overall score of good in at least three categories.
What is the purpose of the Training Time Out (TTO)?
1. It allows cadets and instructors concerned for their personal safety to stop physical fitness, correct any deficiencies, and then continue training.
2. It allows cadets or instructors that may be tired to call for a rest.
3. It is required by The Board of Naval Education.
4. It is required by the Chief of Naval Education and Training.
Which physical fitness test serves as an important measure of hip and back flexibility?
1. The sit and reach exercise.
2. Properly performed push-ups.
3. Pull-ups.
4. Curl-ups.
What is meant by the term muscular endurance?
1. The ability to sustain muscular contractions over a period of time without fatigue.
2. The ability to repeat muscular contractions at least several times per minute.
3. The ability to accomplish a minimum of 15 pull-ups with only a short rest.
4. The ability to do a minimum of 10 chin-ups without rest.
What purpose do curl-ups serve in the physical fitness test?
1. It serves as a functional measure of the abdominal muscle group endurance to prevent lower back injury.
2. It serves as a measure of the upper body strength of a cadet as it applies to raising the body off of the ground.
3. It serves as an indicator of the lower body strength of the cadet as it applies to upper torso extension.
4. It raises the aerobic heart rate of the cadet that is participating, which indicates the overall fitness level.
What function do the push-ups serve in the physical fitness test?
1. They serve as an indicator of the upper torso muscular endurance required for tasks such as pushing, pulling, lifting, or carrying.
2. They serve as a functional measure of the abdominal muscle group endurance to prevent lower back injury.
3. They serve as an indicator of the lower body strength of the cadet as it applies to upper torso extension.
4. They raise the aerobic heart rate of the cadet that is participating, which indicates the overall fitness level.
Which of the following best describes the definition of aerobic and cardio respiratory endurance?
1. The ability to persist in physical activity that demands the use of large amounts of oxygen.
2. The ability to perform physical activity without the heart rate rising above the anaerobic rate.
3. The ability to perform extreme physical activity with no obvious signs of distress.
4. The ability to persist in moderate to extreme physical activity with no long term effects.
When can cadets call a Training Time Out (TTO)?
1. Any/all of these answers.
2. If they feel a sharp pain in their side.
3. If they feel like they are going to throw up.
4. If they fear for their personal safety.
A cadet must hold the touching of their toes on the sit-reach test for how long?
1. 1 Second
2. 3 Seconds
3. 10 Seconds
4. As long as comfortable.
Upper torso muscular endurance is indicated by which portion of the physical fitness test?
1. Push-ups
2. Chin-ups
3. Pull-ups
4. Curl-ups
How often can the Physical Fitness Test be administered?
1. Once in the fall and once in the spring for most units.
2. Twice per semester for schools on a conventional schedule.
3. Once a year.
4. As often as directed by the Senior Naval Instructor.
What is the minimum physical fitness standard a cadet must achieve in all categories of the Physical Fitness Test, regardless of the total number of points, to earn the PFT ribbon?
1. Satisfactory
2. Good
3. Excellent
4. Superior
To earn a Physical Fitness ribbon a cadet
1. None of these answers are correct.
2. must pass at least three of the four events.
3. Must pass all events and score within 15 points of good.
4. Must pass all portions with a score of outstanding.
What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who scores an overall point score of "outstanding" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?
1. Gold Lamp
2. Bronze Lamp
3. Silver Lamp
4. Bronze Star
What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who scores an overall point score of "excellent" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?
1. Silver Lamp
2. Gold Lamp
3. Bronze Lamp
4. Gold Star
What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who scores an overall point score of "good" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?
1. Bronze Lamp
2. Gold Lamp
3. Silver Lamp
4. No Lamp
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the Physical Fitness Test?
1. Sit-reach, curl-ups, push-ups, and the 1.5 mile run.
2. 1.5 mile run, sit-reach, push-ups, and finally curl-ups.
3. Sit-reach, push-ups, curl-ups, and the 1.5 mile run.
4. 1.5 mile run, push-ups, curl-ups, and finally the sit-reach.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?
1. Cardiovascular fitness
2. Mental Fitness
3. Emotional Fitness
4. Physical Fitness
Which of the following are all health related parts of fitness?
1. Cardiovascular fitness, strength, and muscular endurance.
2. Aerobic heart rate, resting blood pressure, and flexibility.
3. Aerobic heart rate, resting blood pressure, and body mass index (BMI).
4. Speed, power, and coordination.
Of the eleven parts of physical fitness, how many are considered skill related parts?
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 6
Under the skill-related parts of physical fitness, which part is the ability to do strength performance quickly?
1. Power
2. Speed
3. Coordination
4. Reaction time
Before you start vigorous exercise, you should......
1. Warm-up
2. Cool-down
3. Check your metabolic rate for reference.
4. Avoid large amounts of water.
What is the minimum times per week that you should exercise?
1. Three times a week.
2. Once a week.
3. Twice a week.
4. Four times a week.
An effective physical workout should be how long?
1. Fifteen to thirty minutes long.
2. Twenty to forty minutes long.
3. Fifty minutes long
4. Five to ten minutes long.
Which of the following principles of a sound exercise program allows you to gradually increase the amount of exercise you do to improve fitness.
1. Overload
2. Progression
3. Specificity
4. Judgment
Which one of the following parts does NOT make up the fitness target zone?
1. Resistance
2. Intensity
3. Frequency
4. Duration
What physical fitness part consists of the ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time?
1. Cardiovascular fitness.
2. Muscular endurance.
3. Power.
4. Endurance.
What physical fitness part consists of the amount of force one can put forth with the muscles?
1. Strength
2. Bulk muscle
3. Cardiovascular fitness
4. Intensity
What type of heat causality is caused by strenuous exertion and exposure to high temperatures and humidity, and is usually the result of excessive salt depletion and dehydration?
1. Heat exhaustion
2. Heat stroke
3. Heat cramps
4. Heat stoppage
Which form of fitness expresses the thought that "no man can live unto himself alone?"
1. Social Fitness
2. Mental Fitness
3. Emotional Fitness
4. Static Fitness
Which form of fitness displays a strong organic base, exhibits vigor, is active, and is skilled in some physical activity?
1. Physical Fitness
2. Social Fitness
3. Mental Fitness
4. Static Fitness
Which form of fitness means that the individual has a healthy outlook on life, thinks independently and constructively, has good judgment, and wants to be fit?
1. Mental Fitness
2. Social Fitness
3. Physical Fitness
4. Static Fitness
Which form of fitness means being stable and self-controlled and facing reality in an honest manner?
1. Emotional Fitness
2. Social Fitness
3. Mental Fitness
4. Static Fitness
How many different parts are involved in the total concept of physical fitness?
1. 11
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7
What is cardiovascular fitness?
1. The ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time.
2. The ability to use your senses, such as your eyes, together with other body parts or to use two or more body parts together.
3. The ability to use muscles, which are attached to the bone, many times without tiring.
4. The ability to change the position of your body quickly.
What is agility?
1. The ability to change the position of your body quickly.
2. The ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time.
3. The ability to use your senses, such as your eyes, together with other body parts or to use two or more body parts together.
4. The ability to use muscles, which are attached to the bone, many times without tiring.
What is muscular endurance?
1. The ability to use muscles, which are attached to the bone, many times without tiring.
2. The ability to change the position of your body quickly.
3. The ability to use your senses, such as your eyes, together with other body parts or to use two or more body parts together.
4. The ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time.
What is the time limit for push-ups?
1. 2 minutes.
2. As long as required, providing the cadet does not stop.
3. Until obvious exhaustion.
4. 1 minute.
Which of the exercises in the Physical Fitness Test is designed to test the aerobic and cardio respiratory endurance of the body?
1. The 1.5-mile run.
2. The sit-reach.
3. The push-ups.
4. The curl-ups.
Which of the Physical Fitness Test events is designed to test flexibility?
1. The sit-reach.
2. The curl-ups.
3. The push-ups.
4. The 1.5-mile run.